7/25/10

On Cornelius the Centurion

In my last post I inquired concerning the identity of the Gentiles of whom Paul wrote in Romans 2:14ff. In v. 13 he writes, "It is not the hearers of the law who are righteous before God, but the doers of the law will be justified." Now obviously if v. 13 is hypothetical and not normative, then the Gentiles mentioned immediately afterwards cannot be actual people by whom Paul intends to illustrate his point about the doers of the law. But if the Gentiles he describes are actual people, then it would seem to follow that v. 13 is not hypothetical at all, but rather highlights a normative state of affairs.

Here's the text:

For when Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do what the law requires, they are a law to themselves, even though they do not have the law. They show that the work of the law is written on their hearts, while their conscience also bears witness, and their conflicting thoughts accuse or even excuse them on that day when, according to my gospel, God judges the secrets of men by Christ Jesus.

So, if a man who is uncircumcised keeps the precepts of the law, will not his uncircumcision be regarded as circumcision? Then he who is physically uncircumcised but keeps the law will condemn you who have the written code and circumcision but break the law (vv. 14-16, 26-27).
Now one way to determine whether the Gentiles of vv. 14ff are real people intended by Paul to furnish us with an illustration of the normative principle of v. 13 is by asking whether any specific examples of such Gentiles can be found in the pages of the New Testament. More specifically, would Acts 10 be such an example?

We read in vv. 1-6:

At Caesarea there was a man named Cornelius, a centurion of what was known as the Italian Cohort, a devout man who feared God with all his household, gave alms generously to the people, and prayed continually to God. About the ninth hour of the day he saw clearly in a vision an angel of God come in and say to him, "Cornelius." And he stared at him in terror and said, "What is it, Lord?" And he said to him, "Your prayers and your alms have ascended as a memorial before God. And now send men to Joppa and bring one Simon who is called Peter. He is lodging with one Simon, a tanner, whose house is by the sea."
When Peter finally arrives at Cornelius's house, the apostle says:

"Truly I understand that God shows no partiality, but in every nation anyone who fears him and does what is right is acceptable to him" (vv. 34-35).
He then preaches Jesus to Cornelius and his house, after which

the Holy Spirit fell on all who heard the word. And the believers from among the circumcised who had come with Peter were amazed, because the gift of the Holy Spirit was poured out even on the Gentiles (vv. 44-45).
I'll just highlight some of the textual connections between Acts 10 and Romans 2, and then let the discussion lead whithersoever it listeth: (1) Cornelius is a Gentile; (2) His good works are said to have gotten God's attention. Specifically, he is described as an upright man whose fear of God, prayers, and alms-giving have "been remembered by God." This seems consistent with those Gentiles who "by patience in well-doing seek for glory and honor and immortality, [God] will give eternal life" (Rom. 2:7); (3) Both Paul and Peter use the exact same phrase, "God shows no partiality"; (4) The Gentiles of Rom. 2 are described as those whose circumcision is "a matter of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the letter" (v. 29), while the household of Cornelius is said to have experienced the baptism of the Spirit, with Peter asking, "Can anyone withhold water for baptizing these people, who have received the Holy Spirit just as we have?" (v. 47); (5) The work of God in the lives of the Gentiles in Acts 10 is explicitly tied to the New Covenant promise of the Spirit falling upon all flesh, while the Gentiles in Romans 2 are said to "show the works of the law written upon their hearts" (v. 15), which is also similar to the language used in the OT to describe the age of the New Covenant.
.
It would seem legitimate, therefore, to say that Cornelius is himself an example of those Gentiles of whom Paul speaks in Romans 2, whose natural uncircumcision is overcome by supernatural circumcision.

Thoughts?

15 comments:

  1. Paige,

    Carrying on our discussion from the previous thread....

    Unless you can demonstrate that Paul is referring in Rom. 2 to a tiny group rather than the larger, general sweep of Gentiles (the majority of whom would have had no contact with Jews or the Hebrew Scriptures), even finding one individual such as you describe would be kind of irrelevant to the argument Paul is actually making in the text.

    Well, the context of Rom. 2 suggests that he is speaking of certain Gentiles, namely, the kind whose uncircumcision is trumped by their Spirit-wrought law-keeping. This is why he says in 3:29 (right after saying that we are justified by faith and not the works of the law) that God is not the God of the Jews only, but of the Gentiles. I don't think he means all Gentiles indisriminatey, but those who exercise the faith and faithfulness of Abraham, the father of faith (which, of course, he goes on to discuss in ch. 4).

    I am guessing that you are going to rest your case on Cornelius, who was commended for his piety. Three objections here:

    a) It's not generally advisable to found theological or ecclesiological conclusions on incidents in Acts, which was written for other purposes. Best to support your point from Paul's actual text in his theologically-oriented epistle.


    But I'm not resting my case on Cornelius, I am resting it on Romans, with Cornelius being adduced as evidence of Paul's theological point there. I am sure you'd agree that this is not illegitimate, even if you disagree with the point I am trying to make.

    b) Cornelius' story introduces some big questions about the nature of regeneration. If Cornelius is one who (as you put it) performs the good works that the law demanded of Israel because of the work of the Spirit in his heart, what are we to make of the fact that the Spirit had not "fallen" on him yet whenever he was commended by the Lord (Acts 10:4, cf. 10:44)?

    Well, whatever was happening in Cornelius's heart in Acts 10, we can at least say that the Spirit had been working prior (else his works would have been unacceptable), but at the same time he had not yet received the fullness of the NC gift (just like the disciples hadn't until Acts 1).

    c) If you are arguing, as you seemed to above, that Paul is referring in Rom. 2 to "Romans 8 Gentiles," i.e., born-again Christian believers, the example of Cornelius would not prove your case, since he wasn't actually a Christian until 10:44.

    Categories like non-Christian are problematic when we're dealing with Acts because, as you know, there was at that time the possibility of being (for all intensive purposes) a child of God who had not yet trusted Christ because the gospel hadn't yet been preached.

    Better to think in terms of Jews and Gentiles. Cornelius was an uncircumcised Gentile, and yet he had partaken of a kind of spiritual circumcision that made his physical uncircumcision unimportant. In other words, what the law couldn't do, God did by the Spirit, so that the righteous requirement of the law was fulfilled in Cornelius, who walked not after the flesh.

    PS - I said "all intensive purposes" deliberately, because I think it's funny.
    ReplyDelete
  2. JJS-
    LOTS of conclusions are problematic when we're dealing with Acts. It was, as you say, a special time, when an OT-Gentile-believer like Cornelius could transition into a NT-Gentile-believer.

    We have to assume that, since Cornelius was one of God's elect, there was a period of time when the Spirit worked in him an OT-level faith, prior to his hearing the gospel from Peter. We get to assume this because Luke TELLS us so much, and because we have our Reformed theology straight.

    I do not think that we can assume the same about the Gentiles in 2:14-15, that these are Gentiles in whom the Spirit has worked (either prior to their conversion to Christ or after). Paul describes their obedience to "the law" as being "by nature," and refers to their "conscience" and "conflicting thoughts." It seems he is even painting an equivocal picture of how well they do -- "their conflicting thoughts accuse or even excuse them..." This would seem a far cry from God's commendation of Cornelius.

    Qs for you: do you think that "the law" that these Gentiles are following = God's revealed law in the Pentateuch, thus moral + ceremonial + civil? So that you are reading here about Gentiles who have been exposed to the Scriptures, as Cornelius was? And so that when you read "Gentiles who do not have the law" you understand Paul to be talking about people who do not POSSESS the law, rather than people who are complete strangers to OT revelation?

    If so, what do you make of the categories of humanity that Paul names in 2:12, "all who have sinned w/o the law" and "all who have sinned under the law"? Is the first group comprehensive, including ALL Gentiles, or only those who have been exposed to the revealed law but don't possess it? If the first group is comprehensive of all Gentiles, why would Paul have narrowed his focus to "certain Gentiles" (your words) in vv.14-15?

    Thanks for keeping this discussion going, Jason. I needed some brain food. When do you guys head back up to the Emerald City?
    ReplyDelete
  3. OK, Paige,let's back up.

    What point is Paul trying to make in Rom. 2? Isn't it that there is no longer a soteriologically significant distinction between Jews and Gentiles?

    And what point is Jesus making to Peter (and then Peter making to the apostles) in Acts 10? Isn't it that there is no longer a soteriologically significant distinction between Jews and Gentiles?

    The exact same phrase is used in both passages, word for word: "God shows no partiality."

    While there may be exegetical issues to address, wouldn't you agree that the two passages are explicitly related?
    ReplyDelete
  4. What do you make of holy Jews such as the parents of the holy Prophet, Forerunner and Baptist John?

    As the Gospel of Luke says (and I use the ESV to be openminded):

    "5 In the days of Herod, king of Judea, there was a priest named Zechariah, [1] of the division of Abijah. And he had a wife from the daughters of Aaron, and her name was Elizabeth. 6 And they were both righteous before God, walking blamelessly in all the commandments and statutes of the Lord. "
    ReplyDelete
  5. Okay, JJS:
    What point is Paul trying to make in Rom. 2? Isn't it that there is no longer a soteriologically significant distinction between Jews and Gentiles?

    Nope. In Rom. 2 it is not Paul's intent to highlight the soteriologically equal status of Gentile & Jew. It's TRUE that God shows no partiality regarding salvation: both Jew & Gentile can be saved. Hence the significance of Cornelius' story in salvation history (so "yes" to your second Q about Acts 10). But HERE (Rom. 2) Paul is talking about the equally guilty status of Gentile and Jew, contra the Jewish claim to salvation-via-association with the clan of Abraham, through possession of the Torah and circumcision.

    Indeed, God shows no partiality in JUDGMENT, either!

    It seems to me that you are reading Rom. 2's reflection in a mirror, and seeing its corresponding truth (God is impartial in salvation) while missing its purpose in Paul's carefully constructed argument (to communicate to an imaginary Jewish interlocutor that God is impartial in judgment). I guess your reading logically follows the assumption that Paul is referring to Gentile Christians whenever he refers positively to Gentiles in the chapter. But I think you should maybe back up and consider the "brick by brick" idea more closely. It's the larger context and the evidence of Paul's purpose here that convinces me that he is writing here about God's impartiality in judgment, rather than in salvation.

    (BTW, interestingly, Moo grants that 2:29 is the first reference, albeit indirect, to Christians in the chapter -- though note that it is not specifically or only Gentile Christians who are in view here.)

    pax,
    pb
    ReplyDelete
  6. Paige,

    In Rom. 2 it is not Paul's intent to highlight the soteriologically equal status of Gentile & Jew.

    OK, now we're getting somewhere. So if I'm understanding you, you would grant that the passages are related if Rom. 2 were talking about what I think it's talking about. Only you think it's talking about something else.

    But HERE (Rom. 2) Paul is talking about the equally guilty status of Gentile and Jew, contra the Jewish claim to salvation-via-association with the clan of Abraham, through possession of the Torah and circumcision.

    OK, let's look at Rom. 2. The context is God's just judgment. There are two groups of people that will be judged, and the categories are NOT "those who have faith" and "those whose law-keeping is perfect." In other words, Paul is not using our covenants of grace vs. works language. He is talking about those who reject the truth (Jews) and those who (merely) seek for eternal life (Gentiles). The latter, he says, will ironically be saved despite their natural uncircumcision, for they, according to Paul, "do what the law requires," they "keep the precepts of the law" to the point that the physically uncircumcised will actually "condemn" the circumcised on the day of judgment. They show the works of the law written in their hearts, for they are Jews inwardly.

    So the passage, taken on its face, is not about the equally condemned status of all people. If you read it for what it says and let it speak for itself, it is about the irony of uncircumcised Gentiles being accepted on judgment day, while the circumcised Jews will be rejected.

    And again, I need to think more about the brick-by-brick argument, but it seems to me that if this individual brick (Rom. 2) does not say what Moo says it's saying, then the brick-by-brick argument is still true, but it's just that the structure of the argument will be different. In other words, no one denies that Paul is following some flow of thought, but if a piece of the puzzle can be shown to be saying something else than what we've thought, then we need to readjust our understanding of how his whole argument works.
    ReplyDelete
  7. Contrarian,

    What do you make of holy Jews such as the parents of the holy Prophet, Forerunner and Baptist John?

    The way we usually answer that question is by saying that OT saints who are regarded as "upright" or "righteous" is by saying that they were not perfect law-keepers on any eternal or saving level (they needed faith like we do), but that they had kept the (relaxed) precepts of the Mosaic law, and thus were (horizontally) righteous.
    ReplyDelete
  8. Righteous before God sounds much more vertical than horizontal.
    ReplyDelete
  9. "I won!"
    "Where? I don't--"
    "Here, diagonally."
    "Pretty sneaky, Sis."
    ReplyDelete
  10. Hey, Jason,
    I really don't think it's eternal judgment & salvation that's in view here, in the sense that the Gentiles get it while the Jews don't. Yeah, that comes along, but it's later, in chs. 9 & 10. This part is about a judgment by works, which is impartially meted out -- you can't claim a pass just because you're a Jew, is what Paul is saying. (This is like where Jesus says "It will go better with Sodom & Gomorrah on that day," or "The men of Nineveh will rise up to condemn this generation...")

    Ya don't haveta take my word for it, of course. But FWIW, that's the take on this chapter from everybody on my bookshelf.
    ReplyDelete
  11. http://www.theonion.com/articles/connect-fourplaying-sis-pretty-sneaky,4167/
    ReplyDelete
  12. "H7."

    "Hit, B6."

    "Shhhhh!"

    "Miss, H8."

    "Hit, C5!"

    "Shhhhh!"

    ("Battleship, a great game of strategy, action and suspense.")

    "Miss, H6."

    "You sank my battleship!"

    "Shhhhh!"
    ReplyDelete
  13. Hey again JJS -
    Kim Riddlebarger says it better than I can (and quicker than Moo!). Go here and look for his sermon called "God's Kindness," on Rom. 2 (it's a pdf -- see especially pp.5ff.)

    http://kimriddlebarger.squarespace.com/display/Search?searchQuery=romans+2&moduleId=1906884

    pax,
    pb
    ReplyDelete
  14. I may have missed it in the comment trails last and this post, but I've always thought that Rom 2:14 was making a 2K/common grace point along the general lines of "unbelievers do good things too". As in "You'd think that lawless Gentiles would never be able to do anything but evil, since they don't have the law. But when Gentiles..."

    Note also "accuse or even excuse them" indicates that for these Gentiles, being excused is an occasional and surprising exception to the normal result, which is judgment.
    ReplyDelete
  15. "You are obviously many things, not the least of which is repetitious."

    "Okay, but I found another one..."

    ...Two, actually:

    http://discoveredeemer.com/?p=223

    The first is a post by Josh Martin, and then down in the comments Jeff Hutchinson stuck a short paper he wrote.

    pax,
    pb

    (I'll stop now.)
    ReplyDelete