9/21/11

What's New about the New Covenant?

I got into a discussion today with my pal and associate pastor about what exactly makes the New Covenant “new.” By way of an attempted answer I’d like to suggest something that may be controversial, but once you understand what I’m NOT saying, it may be easier to swallow.

What makes the New Covenant new is the gift of regeneration.

Here’s what you’re thinking: “Wait a sec, are you saying that OT saints weren’t regenerate? If not, how could they ever have savingly embraced God’s promises?”

Before I address that, let’s remind ourselves of what the Bible says about the relationship of the Holy Spirit to those who lived under the Old Covenant. Perhaps the most important passage in this regard is found in John’s gospel, where we are told:

On the last day of the feast, the great day, Jesus stood up and cried out, “If anyone thirsts, let him come to me and drink. Whoever believes in me, as the Scripture has said, ‘Out of his heart will flow rivers of living water.’” Now this he said about the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were to receive, for as yet the Spirit had not been given, because Jesus was not yet glorified (7:37-39).

Did you catch that? The Spirit was not given until after Jesus’ glorification, which certainly refers to his resurrection and ascension. This leads us to Acts 2 and the Day of Pentecost, on which the Spirit is poured out upon the infant church, leading Peter to refer in his sermon to Joel’s prophecy about the Spirit being given to “all flesh” in the “last days.” Clearly there was some new spiritual dynamic that began on that day, one which did not exist in prior times.

What is this new spiritual dynamic? I would suggest that it is regeneration, and NOT what we sometimes call “effectual calling,” of which the Larger Catechism says:

Effectual calling is the work of God’s almighty power and grace, whereby (out of his free and special love to his elect, and from nothing in them moving him thereunto) he doth, in his accepted time, invite and draw them to Jesus Christ, by his Word and Spirit; savingly enlightening their minds, renewing and powerfully determining their wills, so as they (although in themselves dead in sin) are hereby made willing and able freely to answer his call, and to accept and embrace the grace offered and conveyed therein (67).

That which the above paragraph describes was undoubtedly true of OT saints. But here’s my question: What if regeneration were understood as something different, something narrower and specific to NT saints only?

Jesus only used the term “regeneration” once, and he did so in reference to the age to come. In other words, “the regeneration” was a future place. But then in reference to baptism, Paul says that we have received “the washing of regeneration,” which indicates that the age to come—which Jesus called “the regeneration”—has somehow become the present possession of the baptized believer.

So putting all this together, is it legitimate to say that the OC saints, despite being given whatever was necessary to enable them to internally embrace God’s saving promises, did not enjoy the greater gift of regeneration, according to which the Spirit of the risen Christ actually becomes the possession of the believer, functioning for him as an engagement ring assuring him of his future inheritance?

When we look at it this way, the New Covenant actually looks like it provides something, well, new.

25 comments:

  1. Tom Wenger argued that in a paper he did at Westminster called "Christ, the Life-Giving Spirit:
    Exploring the Newness of the New Covenant." You should at least cite the guy. :)

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  2. Please, that guy's theology is pretty much a footnote to me, so to cite him is really just citing myself....

    PS - I think I know the paper you're referring to, it was a companion piece to his lesser-known Old Covenant Saints: DO They Have Souls?

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  3. And don't forget that paper. "Death before the fall: Did Adam and Eve defecate?" Or was that just a discussion with Darryl?

    I like this quite a bit. I think the Apostles associate the gift of the Spirit quite directly with the kingdom promises made to Abraham (Acts 2:38-39; Gal. 3:14). That the promised holy land, holy people, holy king find their ultimate fulfillment in a regenerated cosmos of which we have received a downpayment.

    Also, the last clause of John 7 could be translated "...for he was not yet Spirit, because Jesus was not yet glorified" and understood in terms of 1 Cor. 15:45.

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  4. Wow, I'm honored, Toby. I couldn't have even told you the title of that paper. And I'll let your impressive testimony stand as to who owes citations to whom.

    But I've got to say that this coversation isn't nearly as fun w/o Mike Brown's involvement. You hear that Mike? You out there? Any thoughts?

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  5. Hey, Joel,
    Yeah that conversation w/ Hart was legendary!

    I've been thinking about this Newness of the New Covenant stuff a lot recently as I been working through Romans again. Particularly Paul's comment that now "we serve in the new way of the Spirit, and not in the old way of the written code." (Rom 7:6)

    And while this stuff often makes the bile rise in the throats of those who are reacting to dispensationalism, it has a solid Reformed pedigree. Calvin's take on John 7:37-39 is this:

    "But one question still remains to be answered. Does he mean here the visible graces of the Spirit, or the regeneration which is the fruit of adoption? I answer: The Spirit, who had been promised at the coming of Christ, appeared in those visible gifts, as in mirrors; but here the question relates strictly to the power of the Spirit, by which we are born again in Christ, and become new creatures." [Calvin, Commentary on the Gospel of John, vol. I, trans. William Pringle (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans Publishing, 1949), 310]

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  6. JDF,

    Also, the last clause of John 7 could be translated "...for he was not yet Spirit, because Jesus was not yet glorified" and understood in terms of 1 Cor. 15:45.

    That's interesting, I hadn't thought of that. What are the ramifications of taking it that way, do you think?

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  7. I believe the major thrust of the newness of the NC has to deal with Jesus as High Priest which is the context in Heb 8.

    "For when there is a change in the priesthood, there is necessarily a change in the law as well" Heb 7:12. This change in the law relates to the ceremonial rather than moral law.

    The OC the high priests acted as mediator between God and man but in the NC there is no human between us and God. Heb 8:10-11 highlights the newness as it relates for us now. Through the HS we have individual access because Jesus is IN us rather than the Father being NEAR us.

    Prior to Sinai the first born served as priest and Melchizedek was high priest, but with a "change in the law" (ceremonial laws given at Sinai), the Aaronic priesthood is established with the Levites.

    The better promises of the NC is that Jesus is always going to be in heaven interceding for us. The Father can find no fault in Jesus' sacrifice and as a result His mediation is perfect.

    The HS communicates this fact to us in the NC and our benefits is found in Heb 8:12, "For I will be merciful toward their iniquities, and I will remember their sins no more." This confidence was not available to OC people prior to Jesus' death and resurrection even to those in heaven (Rev 12:7-12).

    The HS now communicates to us the comfort found in the accomplished work of JC. We are assured of this because the HS testifies with our spirit that we are adopted rather than being testified through some sinful OT high priest who spoke in veiled speak about some future event.

    For me this is the newness of the NC and this confidence has great reward!

    Dean B

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  8. I totally agree. This is what I've come to conclude from my sermon series through Galatians 3:12-21ish. Regeneration is from the Abrahamic promise, which is how OT saints were regenerated.

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  9. I've been thinking along these lines for a while, and I agree. The two times the NT speaks of "regeneration" it speaks of a new covenant reality. Even Jesus' conversation with Nicodemus I think is describing a new experience. He is describing entrance into the kingdom, which wasn't even here until Jesus came to inaugurate it.

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  10. Dean,

    I believe the major thrust of the newness of the NC has to deal with Jesus as High Priest which is the context in Heb 8.

    "For when there is a change in the priesthood, there is necessarily a change in the law as well" Heb 7:12. This change in the law relates to the ceremonial rather than moral law.

    The OC the high priests acted as mediator between God and man but in the NC there is no human between us and God. Heb 8:10-11 highlights the newness as it relates for us now. Through the HS we have individual access because Jesus is IN us rather than the Father being NEAR us.

    Prior to Sinai the first born served as priest and Melchizedek was high priest, but with a "change in the law" (ceremonial laws given at Sinai), the Aaronic priesthood is established with the Levites.


    I would agree with you about Jesus’ high priesthood, but I would want to apply the newness of the NC to everything from the priesthood, to the law, to the temple, to the land, etc.

    It seems to me that you’re applying the “change in the law” to the change in priesthood from the firstborns to the Levites, is that right? I have heard that view espoused before, but I would have to think more about it to figure out if I agree. On the face of it, Heb. 7 seems to be saying that the “change in the law” refers to the change that accompanied the inauguration of the NC, which would mean the new law is the law of Christ/Spirit instead of Torah.

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  11. Eddie,

    I totally agree. This is what I've come to conclude from my sermon series through Galatians 3:12-21ish. Regeneration is from the Abrahamic promise, which is how OT saints were regenerated.

    But I am arguing that regeneration is a NC phenomenon that the OC saints did not have. They were effectually called and partook of whatever internal work of God that was needed for them to embrace God's promises, but what they did NOT enjoy (but which we do) is the indwelling of the Spirit of the risen Christ.

    You picking up what I'm laying down?

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  12. D Hoff,

    I've been thinking along these lines for a while, and I agree. The two times the NT speaks of "regeneration" it speaks of a new covenant reality. Even Jesus' conversation with Nicodemus I think is describing a new experience. He is describing entrance into the kingdom, which wasn't even here until Jesus came to inaugurate it.

    This also helps us understand what Jesus meant when he said that among women there has not been born one greater than John, but he who is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he.

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  13. Pastor Stellman

    Based on your comments I believe you are interpreting my intent correctly.

    The "change of the law" I believe does not refer to the Torah only the part of the Torah that was abolished when Christ became the High Priest forever - the ceremonial.

    WCF 4.2 says Adam had the law written on his heart. The law written on Adams heart could not be the Torah, but limited to the law written on our hearts now in the NC.

    In Gal 3:12 it asks why was the law given? Prior to Abraham a law existed and people where punished for not following it, but it is talking about the law that did not exist at that time - ceremonial law.

    WCF 7.5 the emphasis of the law in the OC "all foresignifying Christ to come". I think the divines limited the scope not to include all the Torah since it is "administered by promises, prophecies, sacrifices, circumcision, the paschal lamb, and other types and ordinances delivered to the people of the Jews". The ceremonial law is the type and ordinances delivered to the Jews which point to Christ. Now that Christ has become high priest we are not under the types and ordinances which the OT priest administered, but the reality exists for Jew and Gentile.

    "I would want to apply the newness of the NC to everything from the priesthood, to the law, to the temple, to the land, etc."

    We agree here. The priesthood, temple, and land were all set up after Sinai and have ceased after Christ's death and resurrection. I would hesitate to throw in law into these three because the moral law still exists and functions as intended in both the OC and NC.

    The HS testifies to my spirit that the ceremonial law is finished and I am still under the moral law. Through the work of the HS I have confidence that Jesus kept the moral law for me and the moral law can never condemn me.

    Dean B

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  14. JJS:

    An anecdote ... Your good question of what constitutes the newness of the new covenant has rolled around in my head since my days at Dallas Seminary (where, incidentally, I became a Calvinist and repudiated the dispensational hermeneutic) in the late 1970s. Interestingly, a common answer to the question among the Dallas community was that the NT saints are regenerated and the OT saints were not. That fact does not invalidate your proposal; it is just an interesting anecdote for me.

    Granting your plausible answer for the moment, would you agree that the OT saints, such as Abraham and David, who were justified by faith, had God's law written on their hearts and had new hearts (as in Ps 40.8; 51.10, 17)? If so, how would this reality relate to their regeneration (which you've described as possession of the Spirit of the glorified Jesus)? Were Abe and Dave born again and thus able to see the kingdom?

    Also, I find myself wanting to back up and ask, where do we look for an explanation of the newness of the new covenant and why? Are we to look to something internal to the believer, or something external to the believer, or both? This is related to the point that Dean B raised above. None of us would deny that there is newness in certain external realities such as the fact that, with the enactment of the new covenant, we have a new priest, a new sacrifice, and a new sanctuary. But why are these external "newnesses" not enough to explain new covenant newness?

    Probably, because of texts like John 7. Is, then, the newness of the Spirit to be explained not the giving of the Spirit as such, but the giving of the Spirit as specifically the Spirit of the glorified Jesus with all that the glorification of Jesus involves (see Hebrews)?

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  15. Hi Fowler,

    … would you agree that the OT saints, such as Abraham and David, who were justified by faith, had God's law written on their hearts and had new hearts (as in Ps 40.8; 51.10, 17)? If so, how would this reality relate to their regeneration (which you've described as possession of the Spirit of the glorified Jesus)? Were Abe and Dave born again and thus able to see the kingdom?

    I would agree that Abraham and David had consciences and knew the law by nature the same way all people do. But I think the specific issue of the inscription of the law upon the heart is a new covenant promise, as Jer. 31 says, so whatever the OT saints enjoyed, I think it was of a lesser order than this (and to anticipate a possible question, I think Rom. 2:14ff is talking about the NC promise, and not the knowledge of natural law).

    The possession of the indwelling Spirit is what I’m calling “regeneration,” since the Spirit of the age to come has been given as a historia salutis event once Jesus had ascended. So it seems to me that, however we end up defining all these things, we have to at least affirm that something new happened in Acts 2 with respect to our experience with the Spirit, and that it is tied to Joel 2 and Jer. 31.

    Also, I find myself wanting to back up and ask, where do we look for an explanation of the newness of the new covenant and why? Are we to look to something internal to the believer, or something external to the believer, or both? … None of us would deny that there is newness in certain external realities such as the fact that, with the enactment of the new covenant, we have a new priest, a new sacrifice, and a new sanctuary. But why are these external "newnesses" not enough to explain new covenant newness?

    I certainly don’t want to minimize the external newnesses (as you call them), but I think the Bible demands we also see new elements internally as well. Not to beat a dead horse, but Jer. 31 explicitly prophecies the internal inscription of the law (which coincides with the external, redemption-accomplished stuff). Both/and, is what I’m saying.

    Is, then, the newness of the Spirit to be explained not the giving of the Spirit as such, but the giving of the Spirit as specifically the Spirit of the glorified Jesus with all that the glorification of Jesus involves (see Hebrews)?

    I think so. Until the ascension, the Spirit was not the Spirit of the now-glorified God-Man whose indwelling presently unites the believer to the future and his heavenly inheritance. That aspect of the Spirit’s work, it seems to me, serves as a better definition for regeneration than merely seeing regeneration as a synonym for effectual calling (which sort of flattens everything out).

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  16. JJS: okay ... there's much to agree on. Do you have any thoughts on why the glorification of Jesus makes regeneration a new element, but the same doesn't apply to justification and forgiveness?

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  17. Fowler,

    Do you have any thoughts on why the glorification of Jesus makes regeneration a new element, but the same doesn't apply to justification and forgiveness?

    That’s a great question, I’ll take my best stab at answering it.

    I suppose God could have worked it out so that every single element of the ordo salutis were experienced by every single saint from Abel onwards, with no distinction whatsoever. And when it comes to justification and forgiveness, he has done just that. But in order for the coming of Christ to have any real significance in time, there had to be something that comes temporally as a result of it. Perhaps this is why the possession of the indwelling Spirit is only possible after Jesus’ glorification.

    Another way to look at it is this: there is nothing about our forgiveness and justification that has any ontological effect upon the Son. But when it comes to our glorification and our here-and-now partaking of the life of the Spirit, that is not the case. The work of the NC involves actually forming a new man, one with Christ as Head and we as members of his body. So it would have been impossible for a believer to be united to the Son via his Spirit when the Son had not yet even assumed human flesh.

    Just some thoughts.

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  18. JJS:

    I sincerely appreciate your wrestling with the question I asked. Your statement -- "in order for the coming of Christ to have any real significance in time, there had to be something that comes temporally as a result of it" -- is intriguing. I agree: there is real and true progress in the history of redemption, with the megashift occuring in the incarnation. It looks to me that another way to express the challenge here is that of explaining how the progress of redemptive history relates to the application of redemption.

    One example ... A version of this question came up for me when preparing a presentation on the priesthood of God the Son and the bearing of redemptive history on his ministry. In that context, I came to the conclusion that we have to affirm something along these lines: God the Son has always ministered as a priest to His people but He has not always been such in His present theanthropic state. For example, when the prophet Isaiah was told by the seraph that “your guilt is taken away, and your sin atoned for” (Isa 6.7), theologically speaking, we recognize in these words the priestly work of God for His people. Yet, inasmuch as the author of Hebrews teaches that such benefits derive from the new covenant and not the old covenant (Heb 9.11-14; 10.1-4), it is noteworthy that forgiveness is announced to Isaiah before the historical ratification of the new covenant. In a similar way, before the new covenant was historically enacted, Abraham was justified (Gen 15.6) and David was forgiven (Ps 32.5). How do we account for the justification and pardon of these believers? As far as I can tell, those blessings were declared to OT believers proleptically, that is, in anticipation of God the Son’s future incarnation and His work of redemption, which was first published in the promise of Gen 3.15, later formalized in the Abrahamic covenant, and still later illustrated in the shadows and types of the old covenant. As a result of all this, it seems to me that we affirm that God (God the Son) has always acted as a priest toward all who walked in faith according to His revealed will, even before God the Son was born in the likeness of men (Phil 2.7) and enacted the new covenant. Does the fact that Abraham, David, and Isaiah were forgiven and justified before Christ came mean that Christ's coming had no real significance? Absolutely not.

    If the gist of those thoughts is on target, we face other questions, including whether the other blessings of redemption were also applied to OT believers before Christ came and what's the basis of our answer.

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  19. This isn't all building up to a rejection of paedobaptism, as NCT-ers are wont to do?

    Since I'm fairly down this road already (think: old Lutheran influences), an interesting spin off is in actuality a ratcheting up of what baptism means in this new covenant. IOW, if the fulfillment of old covenant circumcision is indeed regeneration (circumcision of the heart), then where does that leave baptism?

    Unlike the Westminster divines, I think, who wanted to have their cake and eat it too, and unlike the Zwinglians (or Piperians, or NCT-ers), for whom baptism has nothing to do with regeneration, we have St. Paul's "[God] saved us through the washing of regeneration and renewing of the Holy Spirit" (Titus 3:5).

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  20. Ok, maybe we don't agree then. ;^P

    I'm not sure we can say there is much "new" about the "new" covenant. In fact, if Paul's assertions in Gal. 3:15-18 are to help us with definitions, than what we call "new" is actually "old." Paul's argument there is that the promise came before the Law, and therefore the Law can't change the promise because it was a covenant.

    If this is the case, we should compare Abrahamic and Mosaic covenants as "new" and "old" respectively. Not try to find what is different between the Abrahamic covenant and how we're saved now. You might get yourself into trouble otherwise.

    (An aside here, both Calvin and Luther respond to some of their Roman critics who tried to say the Moral Law came before the Abrahamic Covenant by looking to the Covenant of Works. Both get around this issue though by grounding the promise in the Pactum Salutis laid out in Gal. 3:19-20. Thus the promise really is the older covenant, and the Law newer.)

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  21. Fowler,

    Your statement -- "in order for the coming of Christ to have any real significance in time, there had to be something that comes temporally as a result of it" -- is intriguing. I agree: there is real and true progress in the history of redemption, with the megashift occuring in the incarnation. It looks to me that another way to express the challenge here is that of explaining how the progress of redemptive history relates to the application of redemption.

    It has always kind of seemed to me that we learn from the Bible that the monumental event is, as you say, the incarnation, but then we learn elsewhere that the covenant of grace began in Gen. 3, which sometimes make Jesus’ coming sort of an afterthought or a given. I’m just searching for ways to give expression to the fact that Christ came “in the fullness of time” and accomplished things (and applied them) that were actually new.

    … we affirm that God (God the Son) has always acted as a priest toward all who walked in faith according to His revealed will, even before God the Son was born in the likeness of men (Phil 2.7) and enacted the new covenant. Does the fact that Abraham, David, and Isaiah were forgiven and justified before Christ came mean that Christ's coming had no real significance? Absolutely not.

    But as I said in my last response, forgiveness and justification do not effect Christ in any ontological way, which is why they can be proleptically enjoyed by OT saints. But I would maintain that it’s different with something like the indwelling of the Spirit of the risen Christ. If Jesus’ mission entailed his assuming and then glorifying human flesh, resulting in the Father’s creating in Christ a new man with Jesus as Head and we as members of his mystical body whose end is to say, “In my flesh I shall see God” (Job), then it seems to follow that this re-creation cannot begin in the members until it has begun in the Head. We’re not the firstfruits or the forerunner, Jesus is.

    If the gist of those thoughts is on target, we face other questions, including whether the other blessings of redemption were also applied to OT believers before Christ came and what's the basis of our answer.

    I think our criterion needs to be Scripture, meaning that those things that the NT says were NOT given before Christ’s coming are the ones we need to exclude. So forgiveness and justification were experienced by OT saints (since the NT says they were), but the gift of the indwelling Spirit and participation in the age to come are things that the NT explicitly limits to the post-Pentecost age.

    That’s why John was greater among all those born of women, but less than least among the citizens of Christ’s kingdom.

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  22. Chris,

    This isn't all building up to a rejection of paedobaptism, as NCT-ers are wont to do?

    Mwu-hahahaha!

    Since I'm fairly down this road already (think: old Lutheran influences), an interesting spin off is in actuality a ratcheting up of what baptism means in this new covenant. IOW, if the fulfillment of old covenant circumcision is indeed regeneration (circumcision of the heart), then where does that leave baptism?

    That’s an interesting point. We often use OC circumcision to ground our doctrine of NC baptism, but sometimes we do so in such a way as to place both sacraments (and thus both covenants?) on equal footing. But some would insist that this betrays an under-realized eschatology on our part, since we’re saying that baptism is just as impotent as its predecessor when it comes to effecting what it signifies. Good food for thought.

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  23. JJS:

    You say, I think our criterion needs to be Scripture, meaning that those things that the NT says were NOT given before Christ’s coming are the ones we need to exclude. So forgiveness and justification were experienced by OT saints (since the NT says they were), but the gift of the indwelling Spirit and participation in the age to come are things that the NT explicitly limits to the post-Pentecost age.

    Couldn't agree more than that Scripture has to be our criterion.

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  24. Jason, I think you would be very interested in James Hamilton's book "God's Indwelling Presence: The Holy Spirit in the Old and New Testaments"
    http://www.amazon.com/Gods-Indwelling-Presence-Testaments-Commentary/dp/0805443835/ref=sr_1_3?ie=UTF8&qid=1318057990&sr=8-3

    Here's a separate article related to the book, from Hamilton as well:
    Were Old Covenant Believers Indwelt by the Holy Spirit?

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  25. Jason,

    There is another solution you may not have considered. I would strongly encourage you to consult John Owen with your dilemma, as he provides some solutions you will not find in most other Puritan literature.

    Owen agreed with you and taught that regeneration is in fact part of what makes the new covenant new. However, echoing rfwhite's question, he also said that justification and the forgiveness of sins was part of the newness of the new covenant.

    The way he can say this is because he rejected the WCF formulation of the covenant of grace. Instead, he equated the New Covenant with the Covenant of Grace. He taught that the New Covenant was in effect during the Old Covenant, but that it was not "formally inaugurated" as a covenant until Christ's death - at which point it became the standard of worship.

    Some quotes from this commentary on Hebrews:

    "No man was ever saved but by virtue of the new covenant, and the mediation of Christ in that respect."

    "But it will be said, and with great pretence of reason, for it is the sole foundation of all who allow only a twofold administration of the same covenant, ’That this being the principal end of a divine covenant, if the way of reconciliation and salvation is the same under both, then indeed they are the same for the substance of them is but one.’ And I grant that this would inevitably follow, if it were so equally by virtue of them both. If reconciliation and salvation by Christ were to be obtained not only under the old covenant, but by virtue of it, then it must be the same for substance with the new. But this is not so; for no reconciliation with God nor salvation could be obtained by virtue of the old covenant, or the administration of it, as our apostle disputes at large, though all believers were reconciled, justified, and saved, by virtue of the promise, while they were under the old covenant."

    "This is the meaning of the word “established”, say we; but it is, “reduced into a fixed state of a law or ordinance.” All the obedience required in it, all the worship appointed by it, all the privileges exhibited in it, and the grace administered with them, are all given for a statute, law, and ordinance to the church. That which before lay hid in promises, in many things obscure, the principal mysteries of it being a secret hid in God himself, was now brought to light; and that covenant which had invisibly, in the way of a promise, put forth its efficacy under types and shadows, was now solemnly sealed, ratified, and confirmed, in the death and resurrection of Christ. It had before the confirmation of a promise, which is an oath; it had now the confirmation of a covenant, which is blood."

    All quotes from his commentary on Hebrews 8:6-13
    You can find a detailed collapsible/interactive outline of his argumentation here: http://www.lightandheat.net/owen/demo/owen.html

    see also http://contrast2.wordpress.com/2010/07/29/the-transtestamental-new-covenant/

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